Hi people,
I have got a dumb question for you - or maybe not?! The argument is quite lengthy, sorry for that.
The sierpinski tetrahedron is, as you all know, defined as THE (one and only) thing that consists of 4 copies of itself with half the size, moved towards the corners of a tetrahedron. (now that was an IFS without any formulae

)
The standard construction starts with a tetrahedron; next step consists of 4 smaller tetrahedrons touching at corners (alternatively described as cutting out the central octahedron); repeat ad infinitum.
Some websites claim (e.g. wikipedia, bourke, ...) with all authority they can muster that the endresult has zero volume but finite surface area equal to that of the first tetrahedron. They even hint at a connection between this finite area and the fact that the box-count-dimension of that thing is exactly 2: four copies of half size , dim=ln(4)/ln(2)=2!
I beg to disagree - not on the dimension being 2 or volume being zero, but about the finite area.
Their argument is that with every step of iteration 1 tetrahedron gets replaced by 4 half-sized copies, which have a quarter of the original surface area each, so the area remains constant for each step of iteration. So the final result after infinitely many steps must have the same surface area.
Now let's construct the thingie differently:
Start with only the edges of a tetrahedron; infinitely thin. Then iterate as described: 4 copies positioned correctly reproduce the original 6 edges, plus 12 additional edges of halved length; repeat infinitely.
The final result of this process IS the Sierpinski Tetrahedron, too, because it clearly consists of 4 copies of itself with half the size, moved towards the corners of a tetrahedron.
Since at every step there is only a finite number of infinitely thin intervals, the surface area is ZERO all the time, and again the final result after infinitely many steps must have the same surface area.
Now which is it: zero or the original tetrahedrons area (which is NOT zero)??
Notice that the constructions are quite different: the first method removes half of the volume at every step, while the other doubles the total length of all edges at every step. But either the finite surface area disappears when going to infinitely many steps, OR a non-zero surface suddenly appears when going to infinitely many steps. Both seems unlikely, or equally likely, if you will.
It's just a question of different geometry to start with; you know you can choose ANY set because the final result only depends on the IFS!
I suppose that the correct answer goes something like "you can't give sets of this kind a meaningful surface area expressed in square meters" - hopefully accompanied by a hint "read THIS book for more info".
I would really look forward to th ISBN of "THIS book"

Greetings
Karl